1. Which articles of the Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights?
A) Articles 10-30
B) Articles 12-35
C) Articles 5-20
D) Articles 1-25
Answer: B) Articles 12-35
2. Which amendment eliminated the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 46th Amendment
D) 50th Amendment
Answer: B) 44th Amendment
3. Under which new article was the Right to Property transposed after it ceased to be a Fundamental Right?
A) Article 300
B) Article 300A
C) Article 31
D) Article 19
Answer: B) Article 300A
4. How many groups of Fundamental Rights are currently there in the Indian Constitution?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: B) 6
5. Which part of the Indian Constitution discusses Fundamental Rights?
A) Part I
B) Part II
C) Part III
D) Part IV
Answer: C) Part III
6. Which country’s Bill of Rights influenced the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
A) United Kingdom
B) United States of America
C) France
D) Canada
Answer: B) United States of America
7. Can Fundamental Rights be altered by ordinary legislation?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only during an emergency
D) Only with a two-thirds majority in Parliament
Answer: B) No
8. During which situation can limitations be imposed on Fundamental Rights by the legislature?
A) During peacetime
B) During national emergency
C) During state elections
D) During a financial crisis
Answer: B) During national emergency
9. Which Fundamental Right aims to promote political democracy and prevent authoritative rule?
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Freedom
C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
10. Fundamental Rights act as what type of obligations on the state?
A) Positive obligations
B) Neutral obligations
C) Negative obligations
D) Conditional obligations
Answer: C) Negative obligations
11. What is the role of the judiciary regarding Fundamental Rights?
A) To define Fundamental Rights
B) To alter Fundamental Rights
C) To impose limitations on Fundamental Rights
D) To protect and enforce Fundamental Rights
Answer: D) To protect and enforce Fundamental Rights
12. Which Fundamental Right was transposed to Article 300A and moved out of Part III?
A) Right to Freedom
B) Right to Equality
C) Right to Property
D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: C) Right to Property
13. How does the Indian Constitution describe Fundamental Rights?
A) As ordinary laws
B) As natural rights
C) As fundamental and superior to ordinary laws
D) As political rights
Answer: C) As fundamental and superior to ordinary laws
14. Originally, how many groups of Fundamental Rights were classified in the Indian Constitution?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: C) 7
15. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Answer: D) Article 32
16. The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are similar to which document in the USA?
A) The Declaration of Independence
B) The Articles of Confederation
C) The Bill of Rights
D) The Emancipation Proclamation
Answer: C) The Bill of Rights
17. Which article defines the term ‘State’ for the purpose of Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 12
B) Article 14
C) Article 19
D) Article 21
Answer: A) Article 12
18. Which Fundamental Right is available to both citizens and non-citizens?
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Freedom of Speech
C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
D) Right against Exploitation
Answer: D) Right against Exploitation
19. Which article guarantees the right to life and personal liberty?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
Answer: C) Article 21
20. Under which part of the Constitution is Article 300A, which deals with the right to property, found?
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part V
D) Part XII
Answer: D) Part XII
21. Which articles of the Indian Constitution provide Fundamental Rights that are applicable only to Indian citizens?
A) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 & 30
B) Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27 & 28
C) Articles 32 & 226
D) Articles 15, 20, 21, 24 & 29
Answer: A) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 & 30
22. Which articles of the Indian Constitution provide Fundamental Rights that are available to all residents of India, both citizens and foreigners?
A) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 & 30
B) Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27 & 28
C) Articles 32 & 226
D) Articles 15, 20, 21, 24 & 29
Answer: B) Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27 & 28
23. Which article defines the term ‘State’ for the purposes of Fundamental Rights?
A) Article 12
B) Article 13
C) Article 14
D) Article 15
Answer: A) Article 12
24. Which article confers the power of judicial review to the courts?
A) Article 14
B) Article 12
C) Article 13
D) Article 21
Answer: C) Article 13
25. Which Fundamental Rights are negatively worded as prohibitions on the State?
A) Articles 14, 15(1), 16(2), 18(1), 20, 22(1) & 28(1)
B) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 & 30
C) Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27 & 28
D) Articles 12 & 13
Answer: A) Articles 14, 15(1), 16(2), 18(1), 20, 22(1) & 28(1)
26. Which Fundamental Rights impose absolute limitations upon the legislative power?
A) Articles 14, 15(1), 16(2), 18(1), 20, 22(1) & 28(1)
B) Articles 15, 17, 18, 20 & 24
C) Articles 14, 20, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27 & 28
D) Articles 32 & 226
Answer: B) Articles 15, 17, 18, 20 & 24
27. Which articles ensure Fundamental Rights against state action?
A) Articles 14, 15(1), 16(2), 18(1), 20, 22(1) & 28(1)
B) Articles 15, 17, 18, 20 & 24
C) All Fundamental Rights
D) Articles 12 & 13
Answer: C) All Fundamental Rights
28. If Rights under Articles 19 and 21 are violated by an individual, what remedies are available?
A) Constitutional remedies
B) Legal remedies
C) Both Constitutional and legal remedies
D) No remedies
Answer: B) Legal remedies
29. Which article defines the ‘State’ to include the Government and Parliament of India?
A) Article 14
B) Article 12
C) Article 15
D) Article 13
Answer: B) Article 12
30. Which articles allow the Supreme Court and High Courts to declare a law unconstitutional if it is inconsistent with Part III of the Constitution?
A) Articles 14 & 15
B) Articles 20 & 21
C) Articles 32 & 226
D) Articles 16 & 19
Answer: C) Articles 32 & 226
31. What makes the Indian Constitution legalistic?
A) Power of executive review
B) Power of legislative review
C) Power of judicial review
D) Power of administrative review
Answer: C) Power of judicial review
32. Which article ensures equality before the law?
A) Article 15
B) Article 14
C) Article 19
D) Article 21
Answer: B) Article 14
33. Which article prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
A) Article 19
B) Article 16
C) Article 15
D) Article 21
Answer: C) Article 15
34. Which article guarantees freedom of speech and expression?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 16
Answer: B) Article 19
35. Which article guarantees the protection of interests of minorities?
A) Article 19
B) Article 15
C) Article 29
D) Article 30
Answer: C) Article 29
36. Which article grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions?
A) Article 29
B) Article 30
C) Article 14
D) Article 19
Answer: B) Article 30
37. Which article guarantees protection in respect of conviction for offenses?
A) Article 20
B) Article 21
C) Article 19
D) Article 25
Answer: A) Article 20
38. Which article guarantees the right to life and personal liberty?
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 14
D) Article 16
Answer: B) Article 21
39. Which article prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labor?
A) Article 20
B) Article 23
C) Article 24
D) Article 21
Answer: B) Article 23
40. Which article provides for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion?
A) Article 23
B) Article 24
C) Article 25
D) Article 26
Answer: C) Article 25
41. What is the concept of “Equality Before Law”?
A) Positive concept
B) Negative concept
C) Neutral concept
D) Absolute concept
Answer: B) Negative concept
42. What is the concept of “Equal Protection of Laws”?
A) Negative concept
B) Neutral concept
C) Positive concept
D) Absolute concept
Answer: C) Positive concept
43. Which of the following best describes “Equality Before Law”?
A) Right to equality of treatment in similar circumstances
B) Absence of special privilege due to birth, creed, or like
C) Treated as due process of law
D) Established law in the USA
Answer: B) Absence of special privilege due to birth, creed, or like
44. Which concept is related to Dicey’s rule of law?
A) Equality Before Law
B) Equal Protection of Laws
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer: A) Equality Before Law
45. Where was the concept of “Equality Before Law” established?
A) USA
B) England
C) France
D) Germany
Answer: B) England
46. Which article of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
A) Article 14
B) Article 15
C) Article 16
D) Article 21
Answer: B) Article 15
47. Which article provides for equality of opportunity in public employment?
A) Article 14
B) Article 15
C) Article 16
D) Article 19
Answer: C) Article 16
48. Which sub-clause of Article 15 prohibits discrimination at public places?
A) Article 15(1)
B) Article 15(2)
C) Article 15(3)
D) Article 15(4)
Answer: B) Article 15(2)
49. Which sub-clause of Article 15 provides for the protection of women and children?
A) Article 15(1)
B) Article 15(2)
C) Article 15(3)
D) Article 15(4)
Answer: C) Article 15(3)
50. Which sub-clause of Article 15 provides for the protection of interests of backward classes?
A) Article 15(1)
B) Article 15(2)
C) Article 15(3)
D) Article 15(4)
Answer: D) Article 15(4)
51. What does Article 16(1) and 16(2) ensure?
A) Provisions for protection of women and children
B) Prohibition of discrimination in public employment
C) Reservation of posts in government jobs
D) Prohibition of discrimination at public places
Answer: B) Prohibition of discrimination in public employment
52. What does Article 16(3) specify regarding residence?
A) Residence within a state is a qualification for government posts
B) Reservation of posts for backward classes
C) No discrimination in public employment
D) Protection of interests of backward classes
Answer: A) Residence within a state is a qualification for government posts
53. What does Article 16(4) provide for?
A) No discrimination in public employment
B) Reservation of posts in government jobs for backward classes
C) Provisions for protection of women and children
D) Equality of treatment in similar circumstances
Answer: B) Reservation of posts in government jobs for backward classes
54. Which sub-clause of Article 16 deals with religious or denominational institutions?
A) Article 16(1)
B) Article 16(2)
C) Article 16(4)
D) Article 16(5)
Answer: D) Article 16(5)
55. What is Article 15(1) concerned with?
A) Prohibition of discrimination at public places
B) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
C) Provisions for the protection of women and children
D) Provisions to protect interests of backward classes
Answer: B) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
56. Which concept is treated as due process of law?
A) Equality Before Law
B) Equal Protection of Laws
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer: B) Equal Protection of Laws
57. Which country’s concept is Equal Protection of Laws based on?
A) United Kingdom
B) France
C) Germany
D) United States of America
Answer: D) United States of America
58. What is considered a “Basic Feature” of the Indian Constitution that cannot be destroyed even by a constitutional amendment?
A) Article 14
B) Rule of Law
C) Article 16
D) Judicial Review
Answer: B) Rule of Law
59. Which sub-clause of Article 16 allows for a person professing a particular religion or belonging to a particular denomination to hold office in religious institutions?
A) Article 16(1)
B) Article 16(2)
C) Article 16(4)
D) Article 16(5)
Answer: D) Article 16(5)
60. Article 15(4) was added by which amendment?
A) 1st Amendment Act, 1951
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
D) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
Answer: A) 1st Amendment Act, 1951
61. Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
A) Article 17
B) Article 18
C) Article 19
D) Article 20
Answer: A) Article 17
62. Which act was passed by the Parliament to abolish untouchability?
A) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
B) Anti-Untouchability Act, 1960
C) Social Justice Act, 1950
D) Equal Rights Act, 1955
Answer: A) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
63. Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes titles except for military and academic titles?
A) Article 16
B) Article 17
C) Article 18
D) Article 19
Answer: C) Article 18
64. Which of the following titles is allowed under Article 18?
A) Bharat Ratna
B) Raja
C) Maharaja
D) Nawab
Answer: A) Bharat Ratna
65. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for six fundamental rights in the nature of freedoms?
A) Article 14
B) Article 15
C) Article 19
D) Article 21
Answer: C) Article 19
66. Which freedom is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a)?
A) Freedom of Assembly
B) Freedom of Speech and Expression
C) Freedom to Form Associations
D) Freedom of Movement
Answer: B) Freedom of Speech and Expression
67. Which of the following is a restriction on freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)?
A) Public health
B) Right to privacy
C) Public order
D) Gender equality
Answer: C) Public order
68. Which article restricts freedom of assembly under certain conditions?
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 19(1)(b)
C) Article 19(1)(c)
D) Article 19(1)(d)
Answer: B) Article 19(1)(b)
69. What is a restriction imposed on the freedom of assembly under Article 19(3)?
A) Security of the state
B) Friendly relations with foreign states
C) Assembly must be peaceful and unarmed
D) Public morality
Answer: C) Assembly must be peaceful and unarmed
70. Under which article is the freedom to form associations or unions guaranteed?
A) Article 19(1)(b)
B) Article 19(1)(c)
C) Article 19(1)(d)
D) Article 19(1)(e)
Answer: B) Article 19(1)(c)
71. Which of the following grounds can restrict the freedom to form associations or unions under Article 19(4)?
A) Protection of rights of minorities
B) Integrity and sovereignty of India
C) Right to education
D) Environmental protection
Answer: B) Integrity and sovereignty of India
72. Freedom of movement throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under which article?
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 19(1)(b)
C) Article 19(1)(d)
D) Article 19(1)(e)
Answer: C) Article 19(1)(d)
73. What is a restriction on the freedom of movement under Article 19(5)?
A) Public order
B) Decency and morality
C) Interests of the general public and protection of interests of Scheduled Tribes
D) Security of the state
Answer: C) Interests of the general public and protection of interests of Scheduled Tribes
74. Which article guarantees the freedom of residence and settlement in any part of the territory of India?
A) Article 19(1)(b)
B) Article 19(1)(c)
C) Article 19(1)(d)
D) Article 19(1)(e)
Answer: D) Article 19(1)(e)
75. Which article ensures the freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business?
A) Article 19(1)(a)
B) Article 19(1)(b)
C) Article 19(1)(c)
D) Article 19(1)(f)
Answer: D) Article 19(1)(f)
76. Under Article 19(6), which of the following is a permissible restriction on the freedom of profession?
A) National security
B) Integrity and sovereignty of India
C) Establishing professional or technical qualifications for a profession
D) Protection of rights of minorities
Answer: C) Establishing professional or technical qualifications for a profession
77. Which ground is NOT a restriction under Article 19(2) for freedom of speech and expression?
A) Security of the state
B) Decency and morality
C) Defamation
D) Public health
Answer: D) Public health
78. Which of the following is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(d)?
A) Freedom of speech and expression
B) Freedom of assembly
C) Freedom of movement
D) Freedom of residence and settlement
Answer: C) Freedom of movement
79. Under which ground can the state impose restrictions on the freedom of residence and settlement as per Article 19(5)?
A) Friendly relations with foreign states
B) Public order
C) Interests of the general public and protection of interests of Scheduled Tribes
D) Decency and morality
Answer: C) Interests of the general public and protection of interests of Scheduled Tribes
80. What does Article 18 specifically prohibit?
A) Titles of nobility
B) Academic titles
C) Military titles
D) National awards
Answer: A) Titles of nobility
81.Which article of the Indian Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction for offences?
A) Article 19
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
Answer: B) Article 20
82. Which of the following is a safeguard under Article 20(1)?
A) Double Jeopardy
B) Prohibition against Self Incrimination
C) Ex-Post Facto Law
D) Right to Life
Answer: C) Ex-Post Facto Law
83. What does Article 20(2) of the Indian Constitution deal with?
A) Ex-Post Facto Law
B) Double Jeopardy
C) Prohibition against Self Incrimination
D) Right to Personal Liberty
Answer: B) Double Jeopardy
84. What protection does Article 20(3) provide?
A) Ex-Post Facto Law
B) Double Jeopardy
C) Prohibition against Self Incrimination
D) Right to Privacy
Answer: C) Prohibition against Self Incrimination
85. Which article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
A) Article 19
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
Answer: C) Article 21
86. According to Article 21, no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to what?
A) The will of the government
B) Public order
C) Law
D) Judicial order
Answer: C) Law
87. Which landmark case expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include protection against legislative action?
A) Golaknath Case
B) Menaka Gandhi Case
C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
D) ADM Jabalpur Case
Answer: B) Menaka Gandhi Case
88. Which of the following rights is NOT included under Article 21?
A) Right to live with human dignity
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to property
D) Right to free legal aid
Answer: C) Right to property
89. Which article provides the Right to Education as a fundamental right?
A) Article 19
B) Article 21
C) Article 21-A
D) Article 22
Answer: C) Article 21-A
90. What is NOT considered a fundamental right under Article 21?
A) Right to life
B) Right to personal liberty
C) Right to death
D) Right to privacy
Answer: C) Right to death
91. Article 22 provides protection against what?
A) Arbitrary taxation
B) Arbitrary detention and arrest
C) Ex-Post Facto Law
D) Double Jeopardy
Answer: B) Arbitrary detention and arrest
92. How soon must a person arrested be produced before a magistrate, according to Article 22?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours
Answer: B) 24 hours
93. What type of detention is to prevent a person from committing an offence in the near future?
A) Punitive Detention
B) Preventive Detention
C) Custodial Detention
D) House Arrest
Answer: B) Preventive Detention
94. For how long can a person be detained under preventive detention without an advisory board’s review?
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 6 months
Answer: C) 3 months
95. Which of the following is NOT a right granted to a person under arrest as per Article 22?
A) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest
B) Right to be defended by a lawyer of his choice
C) Right to bail
D) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
Answer: C) Right to bail
96. What does Article 20(1) prohibit?
A) Conviction for an act that was not a law at the time it was committed
B) Being tried twice for the same offence
C) Being forced to testify against oneself
D) Arbitrary detention without trial
Answer: A) Conviction for an act that was not a law at the time it was committed
97. Which article provides safeguards against preventive detention?
A) Article 19
B) Article 20
C) Article 21
D) Article 22
Answer: D) Article 22
98. What does punitive detention aim to do?
A) Prevent future crimes
B) Punish for an offence committed
C) Provide bail to the accused
D) Ensure speedy trial
Answer: B) Punish for an offence committed
99. Which safeguard is NOT provided under Article 22?
A) Right to know the reasons for arrest
B) Right to be defended by a lawyer
C) Right to free legal aid
D) Right to be produced before a magistrate
Answer: C) Right to free legal aid
100. Which type of law does not apply to preventive detention according to Article 20(1)?
A) Ex-Post Facto Law
B) Double Jeopardy Law
C) Prohibition against Self Incrimination Law
D) Habeas Corpus Law
Answer: A) Ex-Post Facto Law
101. Which article of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor?
A) Article 21
B) Article 22
C) Article 23
D) Article 24
Answer: C) Article 23
102. Article 23 protects individuals against actions of which of the following?
A) Only the state
B) Only private citizens
C) Both the state and private citizens
D) Neither the state nor private citizens
Answer: C) Both the state and private citizens
103. The right against exploitation under Article 23 is available to which of the following?
A) Only citizens
B) Only non-citizens
C) Both citizens and non-citizens
D) Neither citizens nor non-citizens
Answer: C) Both citizens and non-citizens
104. Which of the following does Article 23(1) prohibit?
A) Compulsory military service
B) Employment of children in factories
C) Traffic in human beings and forced labor
D) Religious instruction in schools
Answer: C) Traffic in human beings and forced labor
105. Article 23(2) allows the state to impose compulsory services for which purpose?
A) Religious purpose
B) Private business
C) Public purpose
D) Political campaign
Answer: C) Public purpose
106. Under Article 23(2), the state must not discriminate on which grounds while imposing compulsory service?
A) Gender
B) Religion, race, caste, or class
C) Age
D) Educational background
Answer: B) Religion, race, caste, or class
107. Which article prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or dangerous occupations?
A) Article 21
B) Article 22
C) Article 23
D) Article 24
Answer: D) Article 24
108. Article 24 specifically prohibits employment of children below 14 years of age in which of the following?
A) Public services
B) Agricultural fields
C) Factories, mines, and dangerous occupations
D) Household chores
Answer: C) Factories, mines, and dangerous occupations
Articles 25 and 28: Right to Freedom of Religion
109. Which article guarantees the Freedom of Conscience and the Right to Profess, Practice, and Propagate Religion?
A) Article 25
B) Article 26
C) Article 27
D) Article 28
Answer: A) Article 25
110. What does Article 25 guarantee?
A) Right to establish educational institutions
B) Right to religious instruction in schools
C) Freedom of Conscience and Right to Profess, Practice, and Propagate Religion
D) Right to own and acquire property
Answer: C) Freedom of Conscience and Right to Profess, Practice, and Propagate Religion
111. The right to propagate religion under Article 25 includes which of the following?
A) Right to convert others by force
B) Right to disseminate religious tenets
C) Right to receive government aid for religious activities
D) Right to establish a state religion
Answer: B) Right to disseminate religious tenets
112. Which article states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly funded by the state?
A) Article 24
B) Article 25
C) Article 27
D) Article 28
Answer: D) Article 28
113. Article 27 prohibits the state from compelling any citizen to pay any tax for what purpose?
A) Public welfare
B) Maintenance of state security
C) Promotion or maintenance of any religion or religious institution
D) Education
Answer: C) Promotion or maintenance of any religion or religious institution
114. Which article provides the right to manage religious affairs and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes?
A) Article 25
B) Article 26
C) Article 27
D) Article 28
Answer: B) Article 26
115. According to Article 28, religious instruction can be imparted in which type of educational institutions?
A) Only those funded by the state
B) Only those established by private entities
C) Those recognized by or receiving aid from the state
D) Only those established by religious organizations
Answer: C) Those recognized by or receiving aid from the state
116. Article 28 ensures no person attending state-aided educational institutions shall be compelled to do what?
A) Pay for their education
B) Follow a particular religion
C) Receive religious instruction
D) Participate in political activities
Answer: C) Receive religious instruction
117. Which of the following rights is NOT explicitly mentioned in Article 26?
A) Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
B) Right to manage its own religious affairs
C) Right to freedom of speech and expression
D) Right to own and acquire movable and immovable property
Answer: C) Right to freedom of speech and expression
118. Which article provides that the state shall observe neutrality and impartiality towards all religions?
A) Article 25
B) Article 26
C) Article 27
D) Article 28
Answer: A) Article 25
119. The term “Secular State” in the context of the Indian Constitution means what?
A) State religion is Hinduism
B) State religion is Islam
C) State observes neutrality and impartiality towards all religions
D) State promotes Christianity
Answer: C) State observes neutrality and impartiality towards all religions
120. If the public authority fails to comply with the Right to Information Act, what action can the Information Commission take?
A) Impose penalties on the public authority
B) Dismiss the complaint without hearing
C) Revoke the RTI Act
D) Ignore the non-compliance
Answer: A) Impose penalties on the public authority
121. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees citizens the right to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture?
A) Article 28
B) Article 29(1)
C) Article 30
D) Article 31
Answer: B) Article 29(1)
122. Who is covered under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution?
A) Only citizens
B) Only non-citizens
C) Both citizens and non-citizens
D) Only linguistic minorities
Answer: C) Both citizens and non-citizens
123. What does Article 30(2) of the Indian Constitution prohibit the state from doing?
A) Establishing educational institutions
B) Discriminating against any educational institution in grant of aid
C) Conserving language and culture
D) Providing reservations to backward classes
Answer: B) Discriminating against any educational institution in grant of aid
124. According to Article 29(1), who has the right to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture?
A) All residents
B) Citizens
C) Linguistic minorities only
D) Religious minorities only
Answer: B) Citizens
125. What is the focus of Article 30 in the Indian Constitution?
A) Right to education for all citizens
B) Right to establish and maintain educational institutions for religious and linguistic minorities
C) Right to freedom of speech
D) Right to equality
Answer: B) Right to establish and maintain educational institutions for religious and linguistic minorities
126. Which type of institutions are exempted from giving reservations to backward classes?
A) Government institutions
B) Aided private institutions
C) Unaided private institutions
D) Minority institutions
Answer: D) Minority institutions
127. Can non-citizens claim rights under Article 29?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only in special circumstances
D) Only if they are linguistic minorities
Answer: B) No
128. What does Article 30(2) state regarding admission to educational institutions?
A) Admission should be based on merit only
B) No citizen shall be denied admission on grounds of religion, race, caste, or language
C) Private institutions can set their own admission criteria
D) Only government institutions are covered
Answer: B) No citizen shall be denied admission on grounds of religion, race, caste, or language
129. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides the right to establish educational institutions for minorities?
A) Article 28
B) Article 29
C) Article 30
D) Article 31
Answer: C) Article 30
130. Who has the obligation to give reservations to backward classes according to the provided articles?
A) Minority institutions
B) Unaided private institutions
C) Aided private institutions
D) All educational institutions
Answer: B) Unaided private institutions
131. What is the primary purpose of Article 31-A of the Indian Constitution?
A) To provide fundamental rights
B) To facilitate agrarian reforms
C) To empower the legislature to enact laws
D) To ensure judicial review
Answer: B) To facilitate agrarian reforms
132. Which amendment introduced Article 31-A to the Indian Constitution?
A) 25th Amendment, 1971
B) 44th Amendment, 1978
C) 1st Amendment, 1951
D) 42nd Amendment, 1976
Answer: C) 1st Amendment, 1951
133. What is the significance of Article 31-B?
A) It allows the judiciary to review laws under the 9th Schedule
B) It ensures that no laws in the 9th Schedule are void due to inconsistency with Part III of the Constitution
C) It repeals the Right to Property as a fundamental right
D) It facilitates agrarian reforms
Answer: B) It ensures that no laws in the 9th Schedule are void due to inconsistency with Part III of the Constitution
134. Which amendment added Article 31-B to the Indian Constitution?
A) 1st Amendment, 1951
B) 25th Amendment, 1971
C) 44th Amendment, 1978
D) 42nd Amendment, 1976
Answer: A) 1st Amendment, 1951
135. What does Article 31-C empower the legislature to do?
A) Facilitate agrarian reforms
B) Enact laws for implementing Directive Principles of State Policy under Articles 39(b) and (c)
C) Amend and repeal acts in the 9th Schedule
D) Review laws under the 9th Schedule
Answer: B) Enact laws for implementing Directive Principles of State Policy under Articles 39(b) and (c)
136. Which amendment introduced Article 31-C to the Indian Constitution?
A) 1st Amendment, 1951
B) 25th Amendment, 1971
C) 44th Amendment, 1978
D) 42nd Amendment, 1976
Answer: B) 25th Amendment, 1971
137. What is the overriding effect of Articles 39(b) and (c) under Article 31-C?
A) They override all fundamental rights
B) They have no overriding effect
C) They override fundamental rights only to the extent of Articles 39(b) and (c)
D) They override the entire Constitution
Answer: C) They override fundamental rights only to the extent of Articles 39(b) and (c)
138. What has the Supreme Court ruled regarding the 9th Schedule?
A) It cannot be reviewed by the judiciary
B) It must come under judicial review
C) It overrides all fundamental rights
D) It facilitates agrarian reforms
Answer: B) It must come under judicial review
139. What happened to the Right to Property under Article 31 of the Indian Constitution?
A) It was reinforced by the 1st Amendment
B) It remained a fundamental right
C) It was repealed and made a Constitutional Right under Article 300-A
D) It was included in the 9th Schedule
Answer: C) It was repealed and made a Constitutional Right under Article 300-A
140. Which amendment repealed the Right to Property as a fundamental right?
A) 1st Amendment, 1951
B) 25th Amendment, 1971
C) 44th Amendment, 1978
D) 42nd Amendment, 1976
Answer: C) 44th Amendment, 1978
141. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the right to constitutional remedies?
A) Article 30
B) Article 31
C) Article 32
D) Article 33
Answer: C) Article 32
142. Who can a person approach directly under Article 32 for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights?
A) The President
B) The Prime Minister
C) The Supreme Court
D) The High Court
Answer: C) The Supreme Court
143. Under what condition can the Right to Constitutional Remedies be suspended?
A) During a natural disaster
B) During an Emergency
C) During a financial crisis
D) During an election
Answer: B) During an Emergency
144. What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to Article 32 as?
A) The backbone of the Constitution
B) The heart and soul of the Constitution
C) The cornerstone of democracy
D) The pillar of justice
Answer: B) The heart and soul of the Constitution
145. What is the writ of Habeas Corpus primarily used for?
A) To command a public official to perform a duty
B) To prevent a lower court from proceeding in a case
C) To challenge the legality of someone’s detention
D) To question the authority of a person holding public office
Answer: C) To challenge the legality of someone’s detention
146. What does the writ of Mandamus mean?
A) To command
B) To forbid
C) To produce the body
D) To be certified
Answer: A) To command
147. When is the writ of Prohibition issued?
A) To command a public official to perform a duty
B) To forbid a lower court from continuing proceedings beyond its jurisdiction
C) To produce a detainee before the court
D) To quash a decision made by a lower court
Answer: B) To forbid a lower court from continuing proceedings beyond its jurisdiction
148. What is the primary purpose of the writ of Certiorari?
A) To command a public official to perform a duty
B) To question the authority of a person holding public office
C) To quash a decision made by a lower court
D) To prevent a lower court from proceeding in a case
Answer: C) To quash a decision made by a lower court
149. When can the writ of Quo Warranto be issued?
A) To command a public official to perform a duty
B) To prevent a lower court from proceeding in a case
C) To challenge the legality of someone’s detention
D) To question the legality of a person’s claim to a public office
Answer: D) To question the legality of a person’s claim to a public office
150. What does the writ of Habeas Corpus protect?
A) Individual liberty
B) Public property
C) Government authority
D) Judicial independence
Answer: A) Individual liberty
151. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the suspension of fundamental freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 during a national emergency?
A) Article 356
B) Article 357
C) Article 358
D) Article 359
Answer: C) Article 358
152. Under which article can the President suspend the right to move a court for the enforcement of fundamental rights during an emergency, except for Articles 20 and 21?
A) Article 356
B) Article 357
C) Article 358
D) Article 359
Answer: D) Article 359
153. Which fundamental rights are not suspended under Article 359 during an emergency?
A) Articles 14 and 15
B) Articles 19 and 22
C) Articles 20 and 21
D) Articles 23 and 24
Answer: C) Articles 20 and 21
154. What is the primary purpose of Article 358?
A) To allow the President to declare a national emergency
B) To suspend the enforcement of all fundamental rights
C) To suspend the fundamental freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 during a national emergency
D) To protect the sovereignty and integrity of India
Answer: C) To suspend the fundamental freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 during a national emergency
155. Who has the power to suspend the enforcement of fundamental rights during an emergency under Article 359?
A) The Parliament
B) The President
C) The Prime Minister
D) The Supreme Court
Answer: B) The President
156. During a national emergency, what happens to actions taken under the suspension of Article 19 rights after the emergency is over?
A) They can be challenged in court
B) They remain valid and cannot be challenged
C) They are automatically nullified
D) They require parliamentary approval
Answer: B) They remain valid and cannot be challenged
157. What is the balance struck by the limitations on fundamental rights?
A) Individual liberty and social need
B) National security and economic growth
C) State power and judicial independence
D) Public interest and private interest
Answer: A) Individual liberty and social need
158. Which article allows the President to declare a national emergency?
A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 358
D) Article 359
Answer: A) Article 352
159. During an emergency, what fundamental freedoms are specifically suspended under Article 358?
A) Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession
B) Right to equality before the law
C) Right to life and personal liberty
D) Right against exploitation
Answer: A) Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession
160. Under what condition can the suspension of rights under Article 359 be carried out?
A) By an order of the Parliament
B) By an order of the President
C) By a decision of the Supreme Court
D) By a recommendation from the Prime Minister
Answer: B) By an order of the President
161. In which case did the Supreme Court of India question the validity of amendments to the Constitution by the Parliament?
A) Keshavananda Bharati case
B) Minerva Mills case
C) Golaknath case
D) Shankari Prasad case
Answer: C) Golaknath case
162. What was the significant outcome of the Keshavananda Bharati case in 1973?
A) Fundamental rights cannot be amended
B) Parliament has unlimited amending powers
C) Establishment of the “Basic Structure” doctrine
D) Right to property was repealed
Answer: C) Establishment of the “Basic Structure” doctrine
163. Which amendment added the word “Power” to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, explicitly stating the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?
A) 24th Amendment, 1971
B) 25th Amendment, 1971
C) 42nd Amendment, 1976
D) 44th Amendment, 1978
Answer: A) 24th Amendment, 1971
164. What was the primary focus of the 42nd Amendment passed in 1976?
A) To provide Fundamental Rights to citizens
B) To give unlimited amending powers to Parliament
C) To establish judicial review
D) To repeal the Right to Property
Answer: B) To give unlimited amending powers to Parliament
165. In which case was the validity of the 42nd Amendment tested?
A) Golaknath case
B) Keshavananda Bharati case
C) Minerva Mills case
D) Shankari Prasad case
Answer: C) Minerva Mills case
166. According to the Supreme Court, can Parliament limit the operation of Articles 14, 19, and 21?
A) Yes, Parliament has the power
B) No, they form part of the basic structure of the Constitution
C) Only during an emergency
D) Only with the President’s consent
Answer: B) No, they form part of the basic structure of the Constitution
167. What did the Supreme Court declare about the basic structure of the Constitution?
A) It cannot be amended by Parliament
B) It can be changed by a simple majority
C) It can be altered during an emergency
D) It includes all Fundamental Rights
Answer: A) It cannot be amended by Parliament
168. Which amendment is referred to as the “Mini Constitution”?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 25th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Answer: C) 42nd Amendment
169. What did the Golaknath case determine about the power of Parliament to amend Fundamental Rights?
A) Parliament had unlimited power to amend Fundamental Rights
B) Amendments to Fundamental Rights were invalid
C) Amendments required a two-thirds majority
D) Only the President could amend Fundamental Rights
Answer: B) Amendments to Fundamental Rights were invalid
170. Which articles of the Indian Constitution are considered part of its basic structure and cannot be amended?
A) Articles 32, 21, and 19
B) Articles 14, 19, and 21
C) Articles 14, 32, and 21
D) Articles 14, 19, and 25
Answer: B) Articles 14, 19, and 21
171. In which year was the Right to Information Act passed by the Indian Parliament?
A) 2002
B) 2003
C) 2004
D) 2005
Answer: D) 2005
172. What is the main objective of the Right to Information Act?
A) To restrict access to government information
B) To make the government open, transparent, responsive, and accountable
C) To limit the power of the judiciary
D) To centralize government authority
Answer: B) To make the government open, transparent, responsive, and accountable
173. How long does a public authority have to provide information requested under the Right to Information Act?
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) 60 days
Answer: B) 30 days
174. To whom can a complaint be lodged if the requested information is not provided correctly and timely?
A) Prime Minister’s Office
B) Supreme Court
C) Central Information Commission/State Information Commission
D) National Human Rights Commission
Answer: C) Central Information Commission/State Information Commission
175. What must be provided if a request for information is denied?
A) A refund of any fees paid
B) An apology from the public authority
C) The reasons for refusal
D) An alternative source of information
Answer: C) The reasons for refusal
176. Which of the following areas is excluded from the jurisdiction of the Right to Information Act?
A) Public transport records
B) Security agencies like IB, RAW, and BSE
C) Educational institutions
D) Environmental regulations
Answer: B) Security agencies like IB, RAW, and BSE
177. Does the Right to Information Act apply to Jammu and Kashmir?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only during a national emergency
D) Only for state-related information
Answer: B) No
178. Which types of information are excluded from the Right to Information Act?
A) Weather reports and census data
B) Cabinet papers, legal advice relating to decision-making, and information likely to breach privileges of Parliament and state legislatures
C) Public transport schedules and traffic violations
D) Agricultural policies and economic forecasts
Answer: B) Cabinet papers, legal advice relating to decision-making, and information likely to breach privileges of Parliament and state legislatures
179. What is the role of the Central Information Commission/State Information Commission under the Right to Information Act?
A) To create new laws
B) To provide requested information directly
C) To hear complaints and ensure compliance with the RTI Act
D) To approve all information requests
Answer: C) To hear complaints and ensure compliance with the RTI Act
180. Who is entitled to access information under the Right to Information Act?
A) Only government officials
B) Any citizen of India
C) Residents of rural areas
D) Foreign nationals
Answer: B) Any citizen of India
181. Under which article of the Indian Constitution are Fundamental Duties covered?
A) Article 48
B) Article 50
C) Article 51-A
D) Article 52
Answer: C) Article 51-A
182. In which year were the Fundamental Duties added to the Indian Constitution?
A) 1972
B) 1974
C) 1976
D) 1978
Answer: C) 1976
183. On whose recommendations were the Fundamental Duties added to the Indian Constitution?
A) Sarkaria Commission
B) Swaran Singh Committee
C) Mandal Commission
D) Kothari Commission
Answer: B) Swaran Singh Committee
184. How many Fundamental Duties were originally included in the Indian Constitution?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Answer: B) 10
185. By which amendment was the 11th Fundamental Duty added?
A) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
B) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
D) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
Answer: C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
186. From which country’s constitution were the Fundamental Duties of India borrowed?
A) USA
B) USSR
C) UK
D) Canada
Answer: B) USSR
187. Which Fundamental Duty relates to the duty of all parents and guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school?
A) 51-A (a)
B) 51-A (d)
C) 51-A (g)
D) 51-A (k)
Answer: D) 51-A (k)
188. Which Fundamental Duty emphasizes the protection of the natural environment?
A) 51-A (b)
B) 51-A (e)
C) 51-A (g)
D) 51-A (i)
Answer: C) 51-A (g)
189. What does Article 51-A (a) require citizens to do?
A) Follow the ideals of the freedom struggle
B) Defend the country
C) Abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem
D) Develop scientific temper
Answer: C) Abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem
190. Which Fundamental Duty involves striving for excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity?
A) 51-A (c)
B) 51-A (f)
C) 51-A (j)
D) 51-A (k)
Answer: C) 51-A (j)
191. In which year did the Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of citizens submit its report?
A) 1980
B) 1999
C) 2005
D) 2010
Answer: B) 1999
192. What was the primary focus of the Verma Committee?
A) Enforcing the Right to Education
B) Identifying legal provisions for enforcing Fundamental Duties
C) Amending the Constitution
D) Strengthening Directive Principles
Answer: B) Identifying legal provisions for enforcing Fundamental Duties
193. Which Act prevents disrespect to the Constitution of India, the National Flag, and the National Anthem?
A) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
B) Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
C) Representation of People Act, 1951
D) Indian Penal Code
Answer: B) Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
194. According to the Verma Committee, which legal provision addresses imputations prejudicial to national integration?
A) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
B) Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
C) Representation of People Act, 1951
D) Indian Penal Code
Answer: D) Indian Penal Code
195. Which Act prohibits trade in rare and endangered species, according to the Verma Committee?
A) Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
B) Representation of People Act, 1951
C) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
D) Indian Penal Code
Answer: C) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
196. What is the consequence under the Representation of People Act, 1951, for promoting enmity between different sections of people on grounds of religion, caste, race, etc.?
A) Imprisonment
B) Fine
C) Disqualification from Parliament or State Legislature
D) Community service
Answer: C) Disqualification from Parliament or State Legislature
197. Which committee recommended legal measures for enforcing Fundamental Duties through specific Acts?
A) Kothari Committee
B) Swaran Singh Committee
C) Verma Committee
D) Sarkaria Commission
Answer: C) Verma Committee
198. Under which Fundamental Duty does the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 fall?
A) 51-A (a)
B) 51-A (b)
C) 51-A (c)
D) 51-A (d)
Answer: A) 51-A (a)
199. Which Fundamental Duty aligns with the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
A) 51-A (e)
B) 51-A (f)
C) 51-A (g)
D) 51-A (h)
Answer: C) 51-A (g)
200. According to the Verma Committee, which Fundamental Duty relates to promoting national integration and harmony?
A) 51-A (b)
B) 51-A (e)
C) 51-A (f)
D) 51-A (i)
Answer: A) 51-A (b)
