MCQ of The Union Government for TPSC, TET and Other Exam:
President
1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the office of the President established?
(a) Article 51
(b) Article 52
(c) Article 53
(d) Article 54
Answer: (b) Article 52
Explanation: Article 52 of the Constitution states that there shall be a President of India, who is the head of the state.
2. Who exercises the executive powers of the Union of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: (c) President
Explanation: According to Article 53, the executive powers of the Union are vested in the President, who exercises them either directly or through officers subordinate to him.
3. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of which members?
(a) Only members of Parliament
(b) Only members of State Legislatures
(c) Elected members of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
(d) Elected and nominated members of both Parliament and State Legislatures
Answer: (c) Elected members of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
Explanation: As per Article 54, the electoral college for the Presidential election comprises the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states.
4. Which voting system is used in the election of the President of India?
(a) Open ballot system
(b) Proportional representation by single transferable vote
(c) First-past-the-post system
(d) Direct election by citizens
Answer: (b) Proportional representation by single transferable vote
Explanation: Article 55(3) specifies that the President’s election is conducted using proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote through a secret ballot.
5. The population data used to calculate the value of votes in Presidential elections is based on which census?
(a) 1961 Census
(b) 1971 Census
(c) 1981 Census
(d) 2001 Census
Answer: (b) 1971 Census
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of 1976 froze the census for the calculation of votes to the 1971 population data, effective until after the first census post-2000.
6. What is the value of the vote of an MLA in the Presidential election determined by?
(a) Total population of the state ÷ 1000
(b) Total population of the state ÷ Number of elected MLAs
(c) (Total population of the state ÷ Elected members of the state legislature) × 1000
(d) Total elected members of Parliament ÷ Total MLAs
Answer: (c) (Total population of the state ÷ Elected members of the state legislature) × 1000
Explanation: Article 55(2) specifies the formula for determining the value of an MLA’s vote to ensure uniformity among states.
7. What is the value of the vote of an MP in the Presidential election determined by?
(a) Total value of MLA votes ÷ Total number of MPs
(b) Total population of India ÷ Total MPs
(c) Total number of MLAs ÷ Total MPs
(d) Total votes in a state ÷ Total MPs
Answer: (a) Total value of MLA votes ÷ Total number of MPs
Explanation: The value of an MP’s vote is calculated to balance the representation between states and the Union.
8. The Presidential election voting is conducted through which method?
(a) Voice vote
(b) Secret ballot
(c) Open show of hands
(d) Electronic voting machine
Answer: (b) Secret ballot
Explanation: As per Article 55(3), voting in the Presidential election is conducted through a secret ballot to maintain confidentiality and fairness.
9. Why was the delimitation of parliamentary and assembly constituencies frozen until 2026?
(a) To maintain uniformity in representation
(b) To ensure states with better population control are not penalized
(c) Due to lack of census data
(d) To promote proportional representation
Answer: (b) To ensure states with better population control are not penalized
Explanation: The Union cabinet extended the freeze to prevent states with effective population control from losing parliamentary representation.
10. Which principle ensures uniformity in the representation of states during the Presidential election?
(a) Principle of direct election
(b) Uniform civil code
(c) Proportional representation and parity
(d) Federal distribution of powers
Answer: (c) Proportional representation and parity
Explanation: Article 55(1) mandates proportional representation and parity between states and the Union to ensure fairness in the election process.
11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with disputes related to the election of the President?
(a) Article 58
(b) Article 60
(c) Article 71
(d) Article 61
Answer: (c) Article 71
Explanation: Article 71 provides that disputes arising from the election of the President or Vice-President are to be decided by the Supreme Court, and its decision is final.
12. Who has the authority to inquire into and decide disputes related to the Presidential election?
(a) Election Commission
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) Supreme Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction under Article 71 to inquire into and decide disputes regarding the election of the President or Vice-President.
13. If the election of the President is declared void, what happens to the acts performed by the President before the court’s decision?
(a) They become invalid
(b) They are reviewed by Parliament
(c) They remain valid
(d) They are subject to judicial review
Answer: (c) They remain valid
Explanation: According to Article 71, the acts performed by the President before the election is declared void remain valid to ensure continuity in governance.
14. On what ground can the election of the President not be challenged?
(a) Fraud in the electoral process
(b) Vacancy in the electoral college
(c) Violation of election procedure
(d) Misuse of executive powers
Answer: (b) Vacancy in the electoral college
Explanation: Article 71(4) states that the election of the President or Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground of any vacancy in the electoral college.
15. What is the minimum age required for a person to contest the Presidential election?
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 25 years
Answer: (b) 35 years
Explanation: Article 58 specifies that the candidate for the office of President must have completed 35 years of age.
16. Which Article of the Constitution mentions the qualification requirements for the office of the President?
(a) Article 59
(b) Article 60
(c) Article 58
(d) Article 61
Answer: (c) Article 58
Explanation: Article 58 outlines the qualifications required for a person to be eligible for the office of President, such as being a citizen of India and meeting the age and Lok Sabha membership eligibility criteria.
17. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (b) Chief Justice of India
Explanation: As per Article 60, the Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office to the President. In their absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court administers the oath.
18. What is the only ground for the impeachment of the President of India?
(a) Corruption
(b) Violation of the Constitution
(c) Misuse of power
(d) Inefficiency
Answer: (b) Violation of the Constitution
Explanation: Article 61 specifies that the President can be impeached only on the ground of “Violation of the Constitution.”
19. How long is the term of office for the President of India?
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 7 years
Answer: (b) 5 years
Explanation: The President holds office for a term of 5 years from the date they assume office, as stated in the Constitution.
20. If the President resigns, to whom is the resignation addressed?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Vice-President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) Vice-President
Explanation: As per constitutional provisions, the President submits their resignation in writing to the Vice-President, who then communicates it to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
21. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the impeachment of the President mentioned?
(a) Article 58
(b) Article 60
(c) Article 61
(d) Article 71
Answer: (c) Article 61
Explanation: Article 61 of the Constitution outlines the procedure for the impeachment of the President of India, which is a quasi-judicial process.
22. Who can initiate the impeachment process against the President of India?
(a) Only the Lok Sabha
(b) Only the Rajya Sabha
(c) Either House of Parliament
(d) The Supreme Court
Answer: (c) Either House of Parliament
Explanation: As per Article 61, the impeachment process can be initiated in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
23. What fraction of the total membership of the initiating house is required to sign the proposal for impeachment?
(a) 1/3rd
(b) 1/4th
(c) 1/2
(d) 2/3rd
Answer: (b) 1/4th
Explanation: A proposal for impeachment must be signed by at least 1/4th of the total members of the initiating house before it can be moved.
24. How much notice must be given to the President before moving the impeachment resolution?
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month
Answer: (b) 14 days
Explanation: The President must be given at least 14 days’ advance notice before the impeachment resolution is moved in the house.
25. What majority is required in the initiating house to pass the impeachment resolution?
(a) Simple majority
(b) Absolute majority
(c) 2/3rd majority of members present and voting
(d) 2/3rd majority of the total membership
Answer: (d) 2/3rd majority of the total membership
Explanation: The resolution must be passed by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total membership of the initiating house.
26. Who investigates the charges of impeachment against the President?
(a) The initiating house
(b) The other house of Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) A special tribunal
Answer: (b) The other house of Parliament
Explanation: After the resolution is passed in the initiating house, the other house investigates the charges against the President.
27. What is the role of the President during the impeachment investigation?
(a) No role
(b) Can be represented and heard
(c) Must step down during the investigation
(d) Can dissolve Parliament
Answer: (b) Can be represented and heard
Explanation: The President has the right to appear and to be represented during the investigation conducted by the other house.
28. What majority is required in the investigating house to pass the impeachment resolution?
(a) Simple majority
(b) Absolute majority
(c) 2/3rd majority of members present and voting
(d) 2/3rd majority of the total membership
Answer: (d) 2/3rd majority of the total membership
Explanation: The investigating house must also pass the resolution by a 2/3rd majority of its total membership for the President to be removed.
29. Which of the following participates in the impeachment process but not in the election of the President?
(a) Nominated members of Parliament
(b) Elected members of legislative assemblies
(c) Members of Union Territories’ legislative assemblies
(d) Members of the judiciary
Answer: (a) Nominated members of Parliament
Explanation: Nominated members of Parliament can participate in the impeachment process, but they do not participate in the election of the President.
30. Has any President of India been impeached so far?
(a) Yes, once
(b) Yes, twice
(c) No
(d) Only during emergencies
Answer: (c) No
Explanation: No President of India has been impeached to date, as the process is highly complex and requires substantial consensus in both houses of Parliament.
31. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the procedure for handling a vacancy in the office of the President mentioned?
(a) Article 61
(b) Article 62
(c) Article 65(1)
(d) Article 71
Answer: (c) Article 65(1)
Explanation: Article 65(1) outlines the procedure for managing a vacancy in the office of the President, including the Vice-President acting as the President in such cases.
32. What is the maximum time allowed to conduct a presidential election if the office of the President becomes vacant?
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) No time limit
Answer: (b) 6 months
Explanation: If the vacancy is caused due to reasons other than the expiry of the President’s term, the election to fill the office must be conducted within six months.
33. Who acts as the President if the office of the President becomes vacant due to resignation, removal, or death?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Vice-President
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) Vice-President
Explanation: According to Article 65(1), the Vice-President acts as the President in case of a vacancy.
34. What happens if both the offices of the President and Vice-President are vacant?
(a) Chief Justice of India acts as the President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha acts as the President
(c) Prime Minister acts as the President
(d) Senior-most judge of the Supreme Court acts as the President
Answer: (a) Chief Justice of India acts as the President
Explanation: If both offices are vacant, the Chief Justice of India or the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court acts as the President.
35. What is the status of the outgoing President if the election to the new President’s office is not completed by the expiry of the term?
(a) The Vice-President assumes office
(b) The outgoing President continues to hold office
(c) The Chief Justice of India takes charge
(d) The office remains vacant temporarily
Answer: (b) The outgoing President continues to hold office
Explanation: The outgoing President continues to hold office until the new President enters the office.
36. If the President is temporarily unable to discharge duties due to absence or illness, who discharges the functions of the President?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (b) Vice-President
Explanation: The Vice-President discharges the functions of the President temporarily under Article 65(2).
37. What privileges are granted to the President under Article 361 of the Constitution?
(a) Immunity from answering to any court for the exercise of powers
(b) No criminal proceedings during the term of office
(c) No civil proceedings without advance notice
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: Article 361 provides privileges such as immunity from court proceedings, no criminal proceedings, and restrictions on civil proceedings.
38. How much advance notice is required to initiate civil proceedings against the President?
(a) 14 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 2 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: (c) 2 months
Explanation: A notice in writing must be given to the President two months in advance, stating the nature of the proceeding and related details.
39. Which of the following does NOT participate in the election of the President but participates in the process of vacancy management?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Vice-President
(c) Nominated members of Parliament
(d) Elected members of State Assemblies
Answer: (c) Nominated members of Parliament
Explanation: Nominated members of Parliament do not participate in the election of the President but may act as the President during a vacancy.
40. Has there been any instance where the office of the President was managed by the Chief Justice of India?
(a) Yes, multiple times
(b) No, never
(c) Yes, once
(d) Only during emergencies
Answer: (c) Yes, once
Explanation: After the death of President Dr. Zakir Husain in 1969, Chief Justice of India Mohammad Hidayatullah acted as the President until a new President was elected.
41. Under which Article is it stated that the “Executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President”?
(a) Article 52
(b) Article 53
(c) Article 54
(d) Article 74
Answer: (b) Article 53
Explanation: Article 53 of the Indian Constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the President, which is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
42. The President of India exercises executive powers with the advice of which body?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: (b) Council of Ministers
Explanation: According to Article 74(1), the President exercises executive powers on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
43. Which Constitutional Amendment made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 52nd Amendment
(d) 61st Amendment
Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution made it mandatory for the President to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
44. What power does the 44th Constitutional Amendment grant to the President regarding the advice of the Council of Ministers?
(a) Power to reject the advice
(b) Power to send the advice for reconsideration
(c) Power to modify the advice
(d) Power to consult the Supreme Court directly
Answer: (b) Power to send the advice for reconsideration
Explanation: The 44th Amendment gives the President the power to send the advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration, but the President must accept it if it is sent back unchanged.
45. Who is considered the “real executive” in the Indian political system?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) Council of Ministers
Explanation: The Council of Ministers is the “real executive,” while the President acts as the nominal or ceremonial head.
46. If the President sends back the advice of the Council of Ministers for reconsideration and it is sent back unchanged, what must the President do?
(a) Seek judicial review
(b) Call for a parliamentary discussion
(c) Act according to the advice
(d) Refer the matter to the Vice-President
Answer: (c) Act according to the advice
Explanation: Once the advice is sent back unchanged, the President is constitutionally obligated to act on it.
47. The President’s executive powers are exercised in the name of which entity?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President of India
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: (c) President of India
Explanation: All executive actions of the Union are formally taken in the name of the President, although the real authority lies with the Council of Ministers.
48. Can the President act independently of the Council of Ministers in any situation?
(a) Yes, in certain emergencies
(b) No, the President is bound by their advice
(c) Yes, if Parliament grants permission
(d) No, except during impeachment proceedings
Answer: (a) Yes, in certain emergencies
Explanation: The President can act independently in certain extraordinary situations, such as when dismissing a government that has lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
49. Who is responsible for the advice given to the President?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister alone
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) Council of Ministers
Explanation: The advice tendered to the President is the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers, as per Article 75.
50. Which article explicitly provides for the establishment of a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President?
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 76
(c) Article 78
(d) Article 80
Answer: (a) Article 74
Explanation: Article 74 of the Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of executive powers.
51. The President of India is a part of which entity?
(a) Union Executive
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Election Commission
Answer: (b) Parliament
Explanation: As per the Indian Constitution, the President is an integral part of the Parliament, even though the legislative powers are exercised with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
52. What are the three actions the President can take when a bill is presented to him for assent?
(a) Assent, Refer to the Supreme Court, Return
(b) Assent, Withhold, Return
(c) Veto, Prorogue, Refer
(d) Assent, Amend, Reject
Answer: (b) Assent, Withhold, Return
Explanation: The President can declare assent, withhold assent, or return the bill (except a money bill) for reconsideration by the Parliament.
53. Which type of bill cannot be returned by the President for reconsideration?
(a) Money Bill
(b) Ordinary Bill
(c) Constitutional Amendment Bill
(d) State Bill
Answer: (a) Money Bill
Explanation: A money bill cannot be returned for reconsideration under the Constitution.
54. What happens if a bill, other than a money bill, is passed again by both houses and presented to the President?
(a) The President can withhold assent again.
(b) The President must give assent.
(c) The President can suggest further amendments.
(d) The President can refer the bill to the Supreme Court.
Answer: (b) The President must give assent.
Explanation: If a bill is passed again by both houses and presented to the President, he is bound to give his assent.
55. How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 2
(d) 14
Answer: (b) 12
Explanation: The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha based on their expertise in literature, science, art, and social service (Article 80(1)).
56. How many members can the President nominate to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None
Answer: (b) 2
Explanation: The President can nominate up to 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if the community is not adequately represented (Article 331).
57. Who presides over the joint sitting of both houses of Parliament summoned by the President?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: In case of a joint sitting of both houses to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides (Article 108).
58. Which Constitutional Article empowers the President to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Parliament?
(a) Article 85
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 74
(d) Article 331
Answer: (a) Article 85
Explanation: Article 85 gives the President the power to summon, prorogue the sessions of Parliament, and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
59. Which bills require the President’s prior recommendation for introduction in the Parliament?
(a) Constitutional Amendment Bills
(b) Ordinary Bills
(c) Money Bills and Bills related to state formation
(d) Private Member Bills
Answer: (c) Money Bills and Bills related to state formation
Explanation: As per Articles 3 and 117(1), the President’s prior recommendation is mandatory for introducing money bills and bills related to the formation or alteration of state boundaries.
60. The President decides on the disqualification of MPs in consultation with which body?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Election Commission
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: (c) Election Commission
Explanation: The President takes decisions on the disqualification of Members of Parliament after consulting the Election Commission.
61. What is “absolute veto”?
(a) Power to indefinitely withhold a bill without explanation.
(b) Power to reject a bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, rendering it ineffective.
(c) Power to suggest amendments to a bill before giving assent.
(d) Power to allow a bill without signing it.
Answer: (b) Power to reject a bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, rendering it ineffective.
Explanation: Absolute veto refers to the President’s power to outright reject a bill, which prevents it from becoming law.
62. Which type of bill cannot be subject to the President’s absolute veto?
(a) Money Bill
(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill
(c) Ordinary Bill
(d) State Bill
Answer: (a) Money Bill
Explanation: The President cannot apply absolute veto to money bills; they must give assent once passed by the Parliament.
63. What is “suspensive veto”?
(a) Power to withhold a bill indefinitely.
(b) Power to return a bill for reconsideration by Parliament.
(c) Power to reject a bill outright.
(d) Power to delay assent without providing a reason.
Answer: (b) Power to return a bill for reconsideration by Parliament.
Explanation: Suspensive veto allows the President to return a bill for reconsideration, but if Parliament passes it again, the President must give assent.
64. Which veto allows the President to keep a bill pending indefinitely?
(a) Pocket Veto
(b) Absolute Veto
(c) Qualified Veto
(d) Suspensive Veto
Answer: (a) Pocket Veto
Explanation: Pocket veto refers to the President’s power to neither approve nor reject a bill, effectively keeping it in limbo without a time limit.
65. Which veto power is NOT available to the President of India?
(a) Absolute Veto
(b) Suspensive Veto
(c) Pocket Veto
(d) Qualified Veto
Answer: (d) Qualified Veto
Explanation: India does not have a qualified veto system where a veto can be overridden by a special majority.
66. When can the President exercise absolute veto?
(a) When Parliament passes a money bill.
(b) When Parliament passes a private member’s bill.
(c) When Parliament passes an ordinance.
(d) When Parliament passes a money bill with amendments.
Answer: (b) When Parliament passes a private member’s bill.
Explanation: Absolute veto is typically exercised on private members’ bills or state bills reserved for the President’s consideration.
67. What happens if a bill is passed again by Parliament after being returned by the President under suspensive veto?
(a) The President can still reject it.
(b) The President can exercise pocket veto.
(c) The President must give assent.
(d) The bill lapses.
Answer: (c) The President must give assent.
Explanation: Under suspensive veto, once Parliament passes the bill again, the President is constitutionally obligated to assent.
68. Which of the following countries uses qualified veto?
(a) India
(b) United States
(c) United Kingdom
(d) Australia
Answer: (b) United States
Explanation: The American President’s veto can be overridden by a two-thirds majority in both houses of Congress, a characteristic of qualified veto.
69. How is the Indian President’s pocket veto different from the American President’s veto?
(a) The Indian President can delay indefinitely, whereas the American President must act within 10 days.
(b) The American President can reject bills outright, while the Indian President cannot.
(c) The Indian President cannot return bills, while the American President can.
(d) Both have identical veto powers.
Answer: (a) The Indian President can delay indefinitely, whereas the American President must act within 10 days.
Explanation: The Indian President has no time limit for acting on a bill, enabling indefinite delay, unlike the American President, who has a 10-day limit.
70. Which Constitutional Amendment made it mandatory for the Indian President to follow the advice of the Council of Ministers?
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 52nd Amendment
Answer: (b) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, significantly limiting discretionary powers.
71. Who presents the “Annual Financial Statement” or the “Budget” to the Parliament?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) President
Explanation: The President causes the “Annual Financial Statement” (Budget) to be laid before the Parliament as per Article 112 of the Constitution.
72. Which type of bill requires the President’s prior approval before being introduced in Parliament?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill
(c) Money Bill
(d) State Bill
Answer: (c) Money Bill
Explanation: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Parliament after the President’s recommendation, as specified in Article 117.
73. From which fund is money released only after the President’s sanction?
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Contingency Fund of India
(c) Public Account of India
(d) Finance Commission Fund
Answer: (b) Contingency Fund of India
Explanation: The Contingency Fund of India is used for emergencies, and money can be withdrawn only after the President’s approval.
74. How often is the Finance Commission constituted by the President?
(a) Every 3 years
(b) Every 5 years
(c) Every 7 years
(d) As and when needed
Answer: (b) Every 5 years
Explanation: The President constitutes the Finance Commission every five years under Article 280 to recommend the distribution of revenues between the Centre and states.
75. Whom does the President appoint on the advice of the Prime Minister?
(a) Judges of High Courts
(b) Governors of States
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: The President appoints various officials, including Governors, Supreme Court and High Court Judges, and the Attorney General, based on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
76. Under which condition can the President remove officials holding their office?
(a) At their discretion
(b) By a procedure laid down in the Constitution
(c) On the advice of the Chief Justice of India
(d) Based on public demand
Answer: (b) By a procedure laid down in the Constitution
Explanation: Officials appointed by the President hold office during their pleasure but can only be removed following constitutional procedures.
77. Who administers the Union Territories in India?
(a) Chief Ministers
(b) Governors
(c) Administrators appointed by the President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: (c) Administrators appointed by the President
Explanation: Union Territories are directly administered by administrators appointed by the President.
78. What is the role of the President regarding Supreme Court judges?
(a) Recommends their names
(b) Appoints them directly
(c) Appoints them on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Appoints them on the advice of the Council of Ministers
Explanation: The President appoints Supreme Court judges based on the recommendations of the judiciary and the advice of the Council of Ministers.
79. On what type of questions can the President seek advice from the Supreme Court?
(a) Political questions
(b) Legal or factual questions
(c) Administrative issues
(d) Questions about state governance
Answer: (b) Legal or factual questions
Explanation: The President can seek the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion on questions of law or fact under Article 143 of the Constitution.
80. What is the President’s role in the removal of Supreme Court judges?
(a) Can remove them directly
(b) Can only remove them with the approval of the Prime Minister
(c) Can remove them based on the procedure laid down in the Constitution
(d) Has no role in their removal
Answer: (c) Can remove them based on the procedure laid down in the Constitution
Explanation: Supreme Court judges can only be removed by the President following the impeachment procedure detailed in Articles 124(4) and (5) of the Constitution.
81. Who appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court in India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Law Minister
Answer: (b) President
Explanation: The President appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court as per Article 124 of the Constitution, based on recommendations and advice.
82. Under which Article does the President have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, and commutations?
(a) Article 143
(b) Article 72
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124
Answer: (b) Article 72
Explanation: Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions, or commutations in certain cases, including death sentences.
83. What does a pardon by the President imply?
(a) Reduction in punishment
(b) Substitution of punishment
(c) Complete absolution from punishment
(d) Temporary stay on punishment
Answer: (c) Complete absolution from punishment
Explanation: A pardon by the President completely absolves the offender of all legal consequences of their crime and punishment.
84. Which of the following is a judicial power of the President related to death sentences?
(a) Can override Supreme Court rulings
(b) Is the only authority to commute death sentences
(c) Can stay executions indefinitely
(d) Can delegate this power to the Prime Minister
Answer: (b) Is the only authority to commute death sentences
Explanation: The President has the exclusive power to commute or reduce a death sentence under Article 72.
85. What is the primary purpose of the President’s pardoning powers?
(a) To bypass judicial processes
(b) To correct possible judicial errors
(c) To replace judicial verdicts
(d) To challenge court rulings
Answer: (b) To correct possible judicial errors
Explanation: Pardoning powers allow the President to address potential judicial errors, as no judicial system is entirely free of imperfections.
86. Can the Supreme Court interfere with the exercise of the President’s pardoning powers?
(a) Yes, always
(b) No, never
(c) Only in cases of judicial overreach
(d) Only if the procedure is not followed
Answer: (d) Only if the procedure is not followed
Explanation: The Supreme Court can ensure that the procedure for granting pardons is followed, but it cannot interfere in the President’s decision-making process.
87. What does commutation of punishment by the President mean?
(a) Reduction of the punishment duration
(b) Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter one
(c) Temporary stay of the punishment
(d) Full absolution from punishment
Answer: (b) Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter one
Explanation: Commutation refers to changing one form of punishment to another that is less severe, such as replacing a death sentence with life imprisonment.
88. On whose advice does the President exercise his pardoning powers?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Union Government
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: (c) Union Government
Explanation: The President exercises pardoning powers based on the advice of the Union Government, reflecting the parliamentary system of governance.
89. Can the President seek advice from the Supreme Court on legal matters?
(a) No, the President cannot seek advice
(b) Yes, but the advice is binding
(c) Yes, but the advice is not binding
(d) Only with the Prime Minister’s permission
Answer: (c) Yes, but the advice is not binding
Explanation: Under Article 143, the President can seek the Supreme Court’s advice on legal or factual matters, but the advice is not binding.
90. Which of the following is not part of the President’s judicial powers?
(a) Granting reprieves
(b) Appointing judges of lower courts
(c) Suspending sentences
(d) Granting commutations
Answer: (b) Appointing judges of lower courts
Explanation: The President appoints judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts but has no role in appointing judges of lower courts.
91. Who is the supreme commander of the armed forces in India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Defense Minister
(c) Chief of Defense Staff
(d) President
Answer: (d) President
Explanation: The President of India is the supreme commander of the armed forces, as per Article 53 of the Constitution.
92. The President’s power to declare war or conclude peace is subject to whose approval?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Defense Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: (c) Parliament
Explanation: The President can declare war or conclude peace, but this power is exercised subject to parliamentary approval.
93. Who appoints the Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force in India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Defense Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: (b) President
Explanation: The President appoints the Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force as part of their military powers.
94. Which Article of the Indian Constitution vests military powers in the President?
(a) Article 52
(b) Article 53
(c) Article 72
(d) Article 123
Answer: (b) Article 53
Explanation: Article 53 states that the executive power of the Union, including military powers, is vested in the President.
95. In international relations, the President of India represents the country by doing which of the following?
(a) Sending and receiving ambassadors
(b) Negotiating treaties independently
(c) Appointing foreign diplomats
(d) Declaring diplomatic immunity
Answer: (a) Sending and receiving ambassadors
Explanation: The President represents India internationally by sending and receiving ambassadors and diplomatic representatives.
96. In whose name are all treaties and international agreements negotiated and concluded?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Foreign Secretary
(d) External Affairs Minister
Answer: (b) President
Explanation: All treaties and international agreements are negotiated and concluded in the name of the President, subject to parliamentary approval.
97. The President can use military powers in consultation with which authority?
(a) Chief of Defense Staff
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) National Security Advisor
(d) Defense Ministry
Answer: (b) Council of Ministers
Explanation: The President exercises military powers on the advice of the Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister.
98. The President’s power to declare war is regulated by which legal provision?
(a) Article 51
(b) Article 53
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 356
Answer: (b) Article 53
Explanation: Article 53 empowers the President with military powers, but these are regulated by laws and require parliamentary approval.
99. Who ensures that treaties negotiated in the President’s name are ratified?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Parliament
(c) Union Cabinet
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (b) Parliament
Explanation: Treaties and international agreements negotiated in the President’s name must be approved by Parliament to take effect.
100. The President sends ambassadors and diplomatic representatives under their diplomatic powers. This action represents which principle?
(a) Sovereign equality
(b) National security
(c) International representation
(d) Constitutional authority
Answer: (c) International representation
Explanation: Sending and receiving ambassadors is part of the President’s role as the representative of India in international forums.
101. Under which condition can the President proclaim a National Emergency in India?
(a) Only in case of external aggression
(b) Only in case of war
(c) Only in case of armed rebellion
(d) In case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion
Answer: (d) In case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion
Explanation: The President can declare a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion as per Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.
102. Which term was replaced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) in the context of National Emergency?
(a) National Security
(b) Armed Rebellion
(c) Internal Disturbance
(d) War
Answer: (c) Internal Disturbance
Explanation: The term ‘internal disturbance’ was replaced with ‘armed rebellion’ by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978) to make the grounds for National Emergency more specific.
103. What is the time frame within which the proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by Parliament?
(a) 1 week
(b) 1 month
(c) 2 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: (b) 1 month
Explanation: The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
104. How long can a National Emergency initially continue once approved by Parliament?
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) Indefinitely
Answer: (b) 6 months
Explanation: Once approved by Parliament, a National Emergency continues for six months, and can be extended with Parliamentary approval every six months.
105. How many times has a National Emergency been declared in India as of now?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Three times
(d) Four times
Answer: (c) Three times
Explanation: A National Emergency has been declared three times in India, in 1962 (China war), 1971 (India-Pakistan war), and 1975 (Internal Emergency).
106. What special power does the President have during a National Emergency regarding state governments?
(a) Dissolve the state assemblies
(b) Dismiss state governments
(c) Give directions regarding the exercise of executive powers
(d) Appoint Governors for states
Answer: (c) Give directions regarding the exercise of executive powers
Explanation: The President can give directions to any state regarding how its executive powers should be exercised during a National Emergency.
107. Which fundamental rights can be suspended during a National Emergency in India?
(a) All fundamental rights
(b) All except the right to life and personal liberty
(c) Only the right to freedom of speech
(d) Right to life and personal liberty
Answer: (b) All except the right to life and personal liberty
Explanation: During a National Emergency, all fundamental rights can be suspended except for the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) and protection against conviction for offenses (Article 20).
108. Can the Parliament make laws on items mentioned in the State List during a National Emergency?
(a) No, they cannot
(b) Yes, but they are only effective for one year
(c) Yes, but they become ineffective after six months
(d) Yes, they can make permanent laws
Answer: (c) Yes, but they become ineffective after six months
Explanation: During a National Emergency, Parliament can make laws on items in the State List, but these laws are ineffective six months after the emergency ends.
109. In case of a notice disapproving the continuation of a National Emergency, how soon must a special sitting of Parliament be held?
(a) Within 7 days
(b) Within 10 days
(c) Within 14 days
(d) Within 30 days
Answer: (c) Within 14 days
Explanation: If a notice is served by at least 1/10th of the Lok Sabha members disapproving the continuation of a National Emergency, a special sitting must be held within 14 days.
110. Can the validity of a National Emergency proclamation be challenged in a court of law?
(a) No, it is beyond judicial review
(b) Yes, but only on procedural grounds
(c) Yes, based on malafide intention
(d) No, except in exceptional cases
Answer: (c) Yes, based on malafide intention
Explanation: The validity of a National Emergency proclamation can be challenged in court, particularly on grounds of malafide intention, as established in the Minerva Mills case. However, the court’s review is limited to ensuring constitutional limitations are adhered to.
111. Under which article can the President proclaim State Emergency or President’s Rule in India?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 365
(c) Article 370
(d) Article 380
Answer: (a) Article 356
Explanation: State Emergency, also known as President’s Rule, can be proclaimed by the President under Article 356 when the constitutional machinery in the state fails.
112. When can the President proclaim a State Emergency (President’s Rule)?
(a) When a state faces internal disturbance
(b) When the President is satisfied that the governance of a state cannot be carried on as per the Constitution
(c) When a state requests for federal intervention
(d) When the state fails to hold elections
Answer: (b) When the President is satisfied that the governance of a state cannot be carried on as per the Constitution
Explanation: The President can proclaim a State Emergency when the governance of a state fails to comply with the Constitution, either based on a report from the state governor or otherwise.
113. How long can a State Emergency remain in force once approved by Parliament?
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 3 years
Answer: (b) 6 months
Explanation: Once the State Emergency is approved by Parliament, it remains in force for six months, and it can be extended for up to three years with the approval of Parliament every six months.
114. Under what conditions can the President extend the State Emergency beyond one year?
(a) National Emergency must be in force in the state
(b) The Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held due to difficulties
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only if the Governor requests an extension
Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: The President can extend the State Emergency beyond one year only if a National Emergency is in operation and the Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held due to difficulties.
115. What powers does the President acquire during a State Emergency?
(a) He can assume the powers of the state legislature
(b) He can issue ordinances for the state
(c) He can assign all functions of the state government to himself
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: During a State Emergency, the President acquires extraordinary powers such as assuming functions of the state government, issuing ordinances, and declaring that the powers of the state legislature will be exercised under Parliament’s authority.
116. Which body must approve the proclamation of State Emergency by the President?
(a) State Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha only
(c) Both Houses of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Answer: (c) Both Houses of Parliament
Explanation: The proclamation of State Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months of its issue.
117. What happens to the state council of ministers during a State Emergency?
(a) They remain in power, but the President oversees their work
(b) The council of ministers continues, but under the guidance of the Governor
(c) The state council of ministers is dissolved, and the President assumes control
(d) The Chief Minister assumes control of all functions
Answer: (c) The state council of ministers is dissolved, and the President assumes control
Explanation: During a State Emergency, the President dissolves the state council of ministers, and the state administration is taken over by the President, carried out through the Governor and advisors.
118. Can the President suspend the operations of any provision related to the High Court during a State Emergency?
(a) Yes, the President can suspend all judicial powers
(b) No, the President cannot suspend any provision related to the High Court
(c) Yes, but only with the approval of Parliament
(d) No, the President can only dissolve the High Court
Answer: (b) No, the President cannot suspend any provision related to the High Court
Explanation: The President cannot assume the powers vested in the High Court or suspend its operations under a State Emergency.
119. Who manages the state administration during a State Emergency?
(a) The state government continues to function with the President’s advisory
(b) The Governor, on behalf of the President, administers the state with appointed advisors
(c) The Chief Minister governs with the assistance of Union Ministers
(d) The Parliament directly governs the state
Answer: (b) The Governor, on behalf of the President, administers the state with appointed advisors
Explanation: During a State Emergency, the state administration is managed by the Governor, who acts on behalf of the President, assisted by advisors appointed by the President.
120. What is the maximum period for which President’s Rule can be extended in a state?
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) Indefinitely
Answer: (c) 3 years
Explanation: President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum of three years, but only under specific conditions: a National Emergency must be in operation, and the Election Commission must certify that elections cannot be held.
121. Under which article can the President proclaim a Financial Emergency in India?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 365
(d) Article 356
Answer: (b) Article 360
Explanation: Financial Emergency can be proclaimed under Article 360 when the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
122. How long does the proclamation of Financial Emergency remain valid without parliamentary approval?
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Answer: (b) 2 months
Explanation: The proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by Parliament within two months of its issuance.
123. What is the President’s power regarding money bills and financial bills during a Financial Emergency?
(a) The President can issue ordinances regarding money bills
(b) The President can require money bills passed by state legislatures to be reserved for his consideration
(c) The President can directly reject money bills passed by the states
(d) The President can modify the money bills
Answer: (b) The President can require money bills passed by state legislatures to be reserved for his consideration
Explanation: During a Financial Emergency, the President can require that money bills and financial bills passed by the state legislature be reserved for his consideration.
124. Which of the following is NOT an extraordinary power of the President during Financial Emergency?
(a) Reducing salaries and allowances of persons serving in the Union and states
(b) Modifying the structure of the Union government
(c) Directing the states to observe financial propriety
(d) Reducing the salaries of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
Answer: (b) Modifying the structure of the Union government
Explanation: The President’s extraordinary powers during Financial Emergency include directing states to observe financial propriety and reducing the salaries of those serving in the Union and states, but not modifying the structure of the Union government.
125. Has a Financial Emergency ever been declared in India?
(a) Yes, once in 1971
(b) Yes, twice in 1962 and 1985
(c) No, it has never been declared
(d) Yes, it was declared in 2000
Answer: (c) No, it has never been declared
Explanation: A Financial Emergency has never been declared in India since the provision was introduced under Article 360.
126. During a Financial Emergency, who can be affected by a reduction in salaries and allowances?
(a) Only government employees
(b) Only members of Parliament
(c) All classes of persons serving in the Union and states, including judges
(d) Only state government officials
Answer: (c) All classes of persons serving in the Union and states, including judges
Explanation: The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances for all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and the states, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
127. What must happen for a Financial Emergency to continue after its proclamation?
(a) The President must approve the state budgets
(b) It must be approved by the Parliament within two months
(c) It must be ratified by the Supreme Court
(d) It must receive the consent of all state governments
Answer: (b) It must be approved by the Parliament within two months
Explanation: A proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by Parliament within two months for it to remain valid.
128. What power does the President have over financial bills passed by the state legislature during a Financial Emergency?
(a) The President can dissolve the state legislature
(b) The President can amend the financial bills
(c) The President can reserve the financial bills for his consideration
(d) The President can veto the financial bills
Answer: (c) The President can reserve the financial bills for his consideration
Explanation: The President can reserve money bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration during a Financial Emergency.
129. Which of the following is true about the scope of a Financial Emergency?
(a) It can be declared only in the case of war
(b) It can only apply to the Union government
(c) It affects the financial stability of both the Union and the states
(d) It applies only to the economic sectors
Answer: (c) It affects the financial stability of both the Union and the states
Explanation: A Financial Emergency can be proclaimed if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of it is threatened, affecting both the Union and the states.
130. Which of the following is a primary reason for declaring a Financial Emergency?
(a) To handle political instability
(b) To deal with a financial crisis or instability in credit
(c) To dissolve the state legislature
(d) To control inflation
Answer: (b) To deal with a financial crisis or instability in credit
Explanation: A Financial Emergency is declared when the financial stability or credit of India or any part of it is threatened, and it aims to stabilize the economy.
131. What is the primary function of the President’s residuary powers?
(a) To make rules and regulations for matters not mentioned in the Constitution
(b) To pass laws on matters in the Union List
(c) To interpret the Constitution
(d) To declare emergency powers
Answer: (a) To make rules and regulations for matters not mentioned in the Constitution
Explanation: The President has the authority to make rules and regulations on matters that are not explicitly covered in the Constitution, ensuring governance in unforeseen situations.
132. Which of the following Union Territories does the President NOT have final legislative power over?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Delhi
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer: (a) Pondicherry
Explanation: The President has final legislative power over all Union Territories except Pondicherry and Delhi, as they have their own legislative assemblies with specific powers.
133. The President has special powers for which of the following areas?
(a) Union Territories
(b) Scheduled Areas, Tribes, and Tribal Areas
(c) Financial matters
(d) Foreign Affairs
Answer: (b) Scheduled Areas, Tribes, and Tribal Areas
Explanation: The President has special powers for the governance of Scheduled Areas, Tribes, and Tribal Areas, ensuring protection and welfare under the Constitution.
134. Under which article does the President have the power to issue ordinances?
(a) Article 123
(b) Article 343
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 356
Answer: (a) Article 123
Explanation: Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President the power to issue ordinances when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and immediate action is needed.
135. Who advises the President in exercising the ordinance-making power?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Council of Ministers
(d) The Attorney General
Answer: (c) The Council of Ministers
Explanation: The President can issue ordinances only on the advice of the Council of Ministers, ensuring that the ordinance-making power is exercised collectively by the government.
136. What is the maximum period for which an ordinance remains in force without the approval of Parliament?
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 weeks
(d) 6 months
Answer: (c) 6 weeks
Explanation: An ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and will cease to operate after 6 weeks from the date of Parliament’s re-assembly unless it is approved earlier.
137. Can the President’s ordinance-making power violate the fundamental rights of citizens?
(a) Yes, always
(b) Yes, but only in emergency situations
(c) No, it cannot violate fundamental rights
(d) No, it only applies to financial matters
Answer: (c) No, it cannot violate fundamental rights
Explanation: Ordinances issued by the President cannot violate the fundamental rights of citizens and must comply with constitutional limitations.
138. How can the validity of an ordinance be challenged?
(a) By Parliament alone
(b) By the President only
(c) By the judiciary if it goes against the Constitution
(d) By the state governors
Answer: (c) By the judiciary if it goes against the Constitution
Explanation: The validity of an ordinance can be challenged in the courts, particularly if it is beyond the competence of the Parliament or violates constitutional provisions.
139. Can an ordinance issued by the President be retrospective?
(a) No, it must always be prospective
(b) Yes, it can be retrospective
(c) Yes, but only for financial matters
(d) No, unless approved by Parliament
Answer: (b) Yes, it can be retrospective
Explanation: Ordinances issued by the President can have retrospective effect, meaning they can apply to events or situations that occurred before the ordinance was issued.
140. The ordinance-making power of the President is a relic of which act?
(a) Government of India Act, 1858
(b) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Constitution of India, 1950
Answer: (c) Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: The ordinance-making power of the President is derived from the Government of India Act, 1935, which introduced the provision of ordinances as a temporary legislative measure during emergencies.
